It is very clear to me that time exists only in the mind of humans. Our imagination has made this concept seem real however, it is not.
Proof:
Case 1. Suppose the universe is homogeneous, whole and without a bound. Then there exists no time at all. In particular, there is not a time metric within this universe. In this universe, time is not a fundamental property.
Case 2. Suppose that the our universe has been separated (or partitioned) by man. This separation creates time, and additionally, the only artifact (of concern here) in the universe is then time. This act creates the time metric. Then, by the pigeonhole principal, used in reverse, we have a single cubbyhole that time is contained in. That is, the universe began as a whole and we as humans segmented it. By the act of segmenting the universe we created a single cubbyhole that contained time, ie a time metric.
General Note: Consider (as an analogy) my proof of the absence of randomness in the universe, that is a much more complex case of the same proof that I have employed for the concept of time. For the randomness proof we started with an infinite space of numbers, and when we separated the space (numeric space) into cubbyholes that would contain the numbers, one cubbyhole contained at least one object. See, Best-thinking's "To What Extent Does Randomness Exist?" Thus, this is the same argument used in denying that randomness exists, however, the proof in this case (the case of time) is far less complex. It is clear, the number of cubbyholes is much smaller, we are looking at just one separation of the universe and one object, ie time. Finally, time in the partitioned universe is a fundamental property. Humans do consider the universe as partitioned, but infinite.
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About the Author
Rod Danz
I am a cognitive inventor. In particular, I have a theory that uses the simple idea that if you have n cubbyholes and n+1 items to stuff i
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